Diagnosis(6)

251. If a fracture of jaw bone is communicated to external environment, it is called :
σ½ Comminuted fracture
σ¾ Compound fracture
σ½ Simple fracture
σ½ Transverse fracture
252. Le fort 3 fracture is also called :
σ½ Horizontal fracture
σ½ Pyramidal fracture
σ¾ Transverse fracture
σ½ Green stick fracture
253. Inflammation of most or all para nasal sinuses simultaneously is described as :
σ¾ pan sinusitis
σ½ Sinusitis
σ½ Para nasal sinusitis
σ½ Sinus thrombosis
254. Maxillary sinus infection of odontogenic origin is most commonly caused by :
σ½ Aerobic bacteria
σ¾ Anaerobic bacteria
σ½ Fungal
σ½ Viral
255. Squestrum is a :
σ¾ Necrotized bone
σ½ Newly formed bone
σ½ Vital bone
σ½ Reactive bone formation
256. The most common cause of cellulitis in face is :
σ½ Dental carie
σ¾ Pericoronitis
σ½ Trauma
σ½ Antral infection
257. A diffuse inflammation of soft tissue that is not circumscribed is :
σ½ Abscess
σ½ Granuloma
σ½ Swelling
σ¾ Cellulutis
258. A focal gross thickening of the periosteum with peripheral bone formation is :
σ½ Chronic osteomyelitis
σ½ Condencing osteitis
σ¾ Garre`s osteomyelitis
σ½ Periostitis
259. The most common orgaeism associated with cellulitis is :
σ¾ Streptococci
σ½ Staphylococci
σ½ Actinomyces
σ½ Lactobacillus
260. In a patient with bilateral dislocated fractures of the neck of the mandibular condyles one can expect the following clinical signs :
σ½ Anterior open bite
σ½ Inability to protrude the mandible
σ½ Inability to bring posterior molars into contact
σ¾ Anterior open bite and Inability to protrude the mandible
261. Of the followings, which facial bone is most frequently fractured?:
σ½ Mandible
σ½ Maxilla
σ½ Nasal
σ¾ Zygomatic
262. Which of the followings is a complication often open fracture?
σ½ Malunion
σ½ Nonunion
σ¾ Infection
σ½ Crepitation
263. The following are the signs and symptoms of the airway irritation and obstruction except
σ½ Agitation
σ½ Universal distress signal
σ½ Coughing
σ½ Crowing
σ¾ Hypoglycemia
264. The following are the signs and symptoms of the airway irritation and obstruction except
σ½ Crowing (partial obstruction)
σ½ Silence (complete obstruction)
σ½ Wheezing (To breathe with difficulty and noisily)
σ½ Cyanosis
σ¾ Hypertension
The following are the airway equipment for medical emergencies except
σ¾ Cotton role and gauze
σ½ Oxygen tank
σ½ Artificial airways and Face masks
σ½ Suction Machine and Suction Tubes
σ½ Laryngoscope set and Magill forceps
266. The right position is the one that is most comfortable for the patient of emergencies, which position is correct for cardiac arrest patient?
σ¾ The patient needs to be flat on his or her back
σ½ Patients probably will want to sit up, which helps their ability to breathe
σ½ Place the patient horizontally with the feet slightly elevated
σ½ With the feet elevated slightly, the patient can receive a larger flow of blood to the head and thus stimulate the brain
267. The following are the critical airway management in unconscious patient except
σ½ The head is tilted back, and the chin is lifted
σ½ One hand is placed on the forehead, with two fingers of the other hand on the Mn to rotate the head back
σ½ The tongue is attached to the Mn so that when you pull the mandible forward, the tongue also moves forward
σ½ Opens the airway so the patient can breathe, or so you can breathe for the patient
σ¾ Administration of fluid and adrenaline injection
268. The following are management of circulation for unconscious patient except
σ½ Maintain the head tilt and check for the carotid pulse
σ½ The carotid pulse is missed 40% of the time by medical personnel and paramedics
σ½ The pulse should be checked for 10 seconds
σ½ If a pulse is not felt, start compressions immediately
σ¾ Administration of oxygen and fluid
Which of the following is wrong about the management of angina pectoris:
σ½ Written consent by the patient’s cardiologist is desirable
σ½ Appropriate premedication, usually 5–10 mg diazepam or 1,5–3 mg bromazepam orally, 1h before the surgical procedure may be helpful
σ½ Dental surgery in hospital, when the patient refers many episodes of angina pectoris
σ¾ Large amounts of vasoconstrictors in LA with particular importance of aspiration
σ½ Short appointments, as painless as possible
270. Which of the following is the preventive measure recommended for patients with Rheumatic Heart Disease, except…
σ½ Premedication before the surgical procedure can be helpful
σ½ Avoidance of vasoconstrictors (or maximum concentration 1:100,000)
σ½ Small amounts of vasoconstrictors in LA with particular importance of aspiration
σ¾ Procedure the patient in the morning time
271. Which of the following is not the treatment medication for HBP (High Blood Pressure)?
σ½ Diuretics
σ½ Beta-blockers and Alpha-blockers
σ¾ Vasoconstrictor
σ½ ACE inhibitors
σ½ Angiotensin antagonists
272. The following are the risks to patients with HBP (High Blood Pressure) in Exodontia except:
σ½ Stroke
σ½ Myocardial Infarctus
σ¾ Post-operative swelling
σ½ Post-operative bleeding
273. Which of the following is not drug that causes hypotension?
σ½ Anti-anxiety medications
σ¾ Vitamin C
σ½ Certain antidepressants (tricyclic antidepressants)
σ½ Diuretics
σ½ Painkillers
274. Which of the following is not the symptom of hypotension?
σ½ Dizziness or lightheadedness
σ½ Fainting (syncope)
σ¾ Clear vision
σ½ Nausea
σ½ Rapid, shallow breathing
275. The following are the moderate allergy symptoms, except….
σ½ Skin Rash
σ½ Itchy, watery eyes
σ½ Congestion
σ½ Difficulty breathing
σ¾ Apnea
276. The following are the medicines commonly cause an allergic reaction, except….?
σ½ Penicilline (such as Ampicillin, or Amoxicillin)
σ½ Sulfa medicines, Barbiturates
σ½ Insulin, Vaccines
σ½ Anticonvulsants
σ¾ Metronidazole
277. The following are the medicines commonly cause an allergic reaction, except….?
σ½ PNC (such as Ampicillin, or Amoxicillin)
σ½ Sulfa medicines, Barbiturates
σ½ Insulin, Vaccines
σ½ Anticonvulsants
σ¾ Erythromycins
278. Which of the following is not the common trigger of Anaphylaxis?
σ½ Foods
σ½ Insect’s sting
σ¾ Pollens and other inhaled allergens
σ½ Substances can cause reactions are fish and latex
279. Among the following which is the rescue breathing in adult?
σ½ 6 times/min
σ½ 18 times/min
σ¾ 12 times/min
σ½ 24 times/min
280. In patient on artificial ventilation the cycle of exhale air ventilation should be repeated of every:
σ½ 20 secs
σ½ 10 secs
σ¾ 5 secs
σ½ 1 sec
281. To perform tracheoctomy entry should be made at the:
σ¾ Cricothyroid ligament
σ½ Thyroid membrane
σ½ Thyroid notch
σ½ Cricoid cartilage
282. The primary hazard for unconscious patient in supine position is:
σ¾ Tongue obstruction
σ½ Bronchospasm
σ½ Lanyngospasm
σ½ Aspiration
283. The best blood product administered preoperatively to patients with haemophilia A is:
σ½ Fresh frozen plasma
σ½ Factor IX concentrate
σ½ Whole blood
σ¾ Factor VIII concentrate
284. A cardinal symptom of dehydration due to disturbance of fluid and electrolyte balance is:
σ½ Hyperthermia
σ½ Nausea
σ¾ Polydipsia
σ½ None
285. Patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is most likely to have which of following postoperative complication:
σ½ Infection
σ¾ Haemorrhage
σ½ Oedema
σ½ Alveolar osteitis
286. Which is the earliest sign of haemorrhagic shock?
σ½ Hypotension
σ½ Vasoconstriction
σ¾ Tachycardia
σ½ Dyspnoea
287. Haemorrhagic shocks are the following characterizes, except…
σ½ Hypotension
σ½ Low blood volume
σ½ Increased pulse rate
σ¾ Decrease pulse rate
288. Reye’s syndrome is caused by the long-term usage of:
σ½ Paracetamol
σ¾ Aspirin
σ½ Ibuprofen
σ½ Nimesulide
289. The following are signs and symptoms of life-threatening asthma, except…
σ½ Cyanosis or respiratory rate < 8 per minute
σ½ Bradycardia (heart rate < 50 per minute)
σ½ Exhaustion, confusion, decreased conscious level
σ¾ Abdominal pain and vomiting
290. The following are signs and symptoms of acute severe asthmatic, except….
σ½ Inability to complete sentences in one breath
σ½ Respiratory rate > 25 per minute
σ½ Tachycardia (heart rate > 110 per minute)
σ¾ Convulsion and diarrhea
291. The following are signs and symptoms of acute Angina and MI, except….
σ½ Shortness of breath and increased respiratory rate
σ½ Skin becomes pale and clammy
σ½ Nausea and vomiting are common
σ½ Pulse might be weak and blood pressure might fall
σ¾ Crushing pain in the right and across the front of chest
292. Which of the following is not true of key signs of cardiac arrest?
σ½ Loss of consciousness
σ½ Absence of breathing
σ½ Loss of pulse
σ½ Dilation of pupils
σ¾ Tachycardia
293. Which of the following is wrong of the management of Hypoglycaemia with the unconscious patient?
σ½ Assess the patient
σ½ Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn
σ¾ Administer oral glucose (10–20 g), repeated, after10–15 minutes
σ½ Or Administer glucagon, 1 mg, IM
294. Which of the drug is not true for the management of Anxiety patient?
σ½ Midazolam
σ½ Diazepam
σ½ Lorazepam
σ¾ Ketamine
295. The patients with congestive heart failure may have all of these conditions, except:
σ½ Extreme dyspnea
σ½ Hyperventilation
σ¾ Extreme headache
σ½ Cyanosis
296. The patients with congestive heart failure may have all of these conditions, except:
σ½ Cough
σ½ Hemoptysis
σ½ Difficulty in breathing
σ¾ Teary eyes
297. The incorrect preventive measure before the surgical procedure for a patient with congestive heart failure is
σ½ Written consent from the patient’s cardiologist
σ½ Oral premedication
σ¾ Long painless appointments
σ½ Small amounts of vasoconstrictors in local anesthesia
298. The preferred position for the patients with congestive heart failure is
σ½ Standing position
σ¾ Sitting position
σ½ Sleeping position
σ½ Sleeping position with legs raised a bit upward
299. The incorrect preventive measure before the surgical procedure for a patient with angina pectoris is
σ¾ Oral premedication, usually 20-50mg diazepam
σ½ Written consent from the patient’s cardiologist
σ½ Small amounts of vasoconstrictors in local anesthesia
σ½ Dental surgery in hospital
300. Precipitating factors of angina pectoris are all, except
σ½ Fatigue
σ½ Rich meal
σ¾ Dizziness
σ½ Extreme stress
351. Stress from microtrauma results from:
σ¾ Repeated occlusal overload
σ½ Root canal treated tooth
σ½ Accident and head injury
σ½ All are corrects
352. Any Condition that prevents thorough cleaning of any tooth surface or portion of the sulcus should be consider as a :
σ¾ Causative factor
σ½ Contributive factor
σ½ Microtrauma
σ½ Microorganism
353. The use of long-term retainers to maintain post-orthodontic tooth alignment could be dramatically reduced if :
σ¾ Occlusal principles were better understood
σ½ Tooth in perfect alignment
σ½ It is a good retainer
σ½ Perfect ligament and good retainer
354. The #1 factor associated with discomfort within masticatory system structures. This includes pain/discomfort in the musculature, the teeth, and the region of the temporomandibular joints (TMJs).
σ¾ Occlusal disease
σ½ Temporomandibular disorder (TMD)
σ½ Muscle pain
σ½ Articular pain
355. One noticeable characteristic of Attrition that present on enamel surface is:
σ¾ Sharp edge of enamel
σ½ Smooth edge of enamel
σ½ Sharp edge of dentin
σ½ Smooth edge of dentin
356. One noticeable characteristic of Erosion that present on enamel surface is :
σ½ Sharp edge of enamel
σ¾ Smooth edge of enamel
σ½ Sharp edge of dentin
σ½ Smooth edge of dentin
357. One noticeable characteristic of Abrasion which cause by tooth brushing is :
σ½ mainly seen on the lingual surface at cervical of the tooth
σ¾ mainly seen on the buccal surface at cervical of the tooth
σ½ mainly seen on the occlusal surface of the tooth
σ½ mainly seen on the periodontium of the tooth
358. Occlusal disease is the deformation or disturbances of function of any structure with in the masticatory system that are in disequilibrium with a harmonious interrelationship between:
σ½ TMJs, Masticatory muscle, and periodontium
σ½ TMJs, Masticatory muscle, and alveolar bone
σ¾ TMJs, Masticatory muscle, and occluding surface of the teeth
σ½ TMJs, periodontium and alveolar bone
359. Attrition wear lower anterior teeth might cause by :
σ½ Over conturing of prothesis or any restoration on the buccal surface of upper maxillary incisor.
σ½ Over conturing of prothesis or any restoration occlusal surface of upper maxillary incisor.
σ¾ Over conturing of prothesis or any restoration on the palatal surface of upper maxillary incisor.
σ½ All are correct
360. Destroyed Dentition is one of the most demanding occlusal problems to treat, delay of treatment might result in :
σ½ wear, fractured maxillary and mandibular teeth,
σ¾ severe wear, fractured maxillary and mandibular teeth, and elongated alveolar processes
σ½ severe wear, fractured maxillary, and elongated alveolar processes
σ½ wear, elongated alveolar processes and fractured mandibular teeth
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