Management (11)

501. The physical attraction of unlike molecules to one another. What is it called?

σ� Adhesion.

σ� Cohesion.

σ� Interfacial surface tension

σ� Viscosity.

502. Reciprocation between bracing and retentive components requires:

σ� I bars be used

σ� Aker clasp be used

σ� Bracing components contacts after retentive components

σ� Correct timing of contact during seating and removed of RPD

503. Which of the following clasps commonly utilize lingual undercut?:

σ� Extended arm clasp

σ� Back action clasp

σ� Embrasure clasp

σ� Ring clasp

504. The external finish line is:

σ� the external of framework metal and denture base plastic

σ� the external of framework metal and supporting tissues

σ� the external of framework metal and the natural teeth

σ� the external of the natural teeth and the denture base plastic

505. Functions of a Major connector:

σ� component of RPD connect to acrylic resin

σ� kind of metal chrome cobalt

σ� functions as one unit

σ� unification, stress distribution, cross arch stabilization

506. Requirements of a Major connector:

σ� connects various parts

σ� distributes functional loads to both teeth and mucosa

σ� partial denture acts as one unit

σ� rigidity, non interference with tissues, minimize food impaction and unobtrusive

507. The superior border of mandibular lingual bar major connector should be:

σ� at least 3mm from the tooth/ tissue junction

σ� at least 3mm from the tooth/ junction

σ� as far from gingival margin as possible

σ� at least 3mm above the tooth/ junction

508. The internal finish line is:

σ� the butt joint between the metal and resin acrylic on the tissue side of the edentulous area

σ� the butt joint between the metal and resin acrylic on the outer surface of the RPD

σ� a type of posterior palatal seal

σ� a special type of above

509. The Gridwork of Minor Connector on a maxillary class 1 RPD:

σ� covers the hamular notch

σ� covers the tuberosity

σ� does not cover the tuberosity

σ� covers the crest and tuberosity

510. Occlusal rest preparation should be:

σ� spoon shaped, at least1/3 the bucco lingual width of the occlusal surface, at least 1m deep

σ� flat shaped, at least1/3 the bucco lingual width of the occlusal surface, at least 1mm deep

σ� pear shaped, at least 1/2 the bucco lingual width of the occlusal surface, at least 15mm deep

σ� teardrop shaped, at least 1/2 the bucco lingual width of the occlusal surface, at least 15mm deep

511. A lingual plate major connector may be selected be cause

σ� the mandibular incisors are tilted lingually, mandibular tori present, high lingual frenum

σ� the mandibular incisors are tilted facially, high floor of the mouth

σ� the mandibular incisors are tilted facially, mandibular tori present ,high lingual fremum

σ� the mandibular incisors are tilted lingually ,high floor of the mouth, high lingual frenum

512. An anterior posterior palatal strap major connector is less rigid than a horseshoe major connector because it (the AP strap) has less width:

σ� The first statement is true but the reason is false

σ� The first statement is false and the reason is also false

σ� The first statement is true and the reason is true

σ� The first statement is false but the reason is true

513. In a circumferential clasp assembly, the arms may extend into an undercut:

σ� The bracing arm

σ� The reciprocating arm and retentive arm

σ� The bracing arm and retentive arm

σ� The retentive arm

514. When the survey line is height on the Mesial or Distal but low on the center, which one design clasp:

I clasp

Y clasp

T clasp

U clasp

515. Best selection of preventing abutments tooth of class I Kennedy from the negative effects of the additional load applied to them is by:

Splinting abutment with adjacent teeth

Placing distal rests on the distal abutment

Keeping a light occlusion on the distal extensions

Regular relining of distal extensions

516. When designing palatal connectors, relief should be given for:

Ridge area

Elevated mid suture line

Rugae area

Palatal torus

517. Which of the following would most clearly differentiate an acute periodontal abscess from an acute periapical abscess?

σ� Pigmentation of the gingivae

σ� Degree of tooth mobility

σ� Response to a test for vitality

σ� Tenderness to percussion

518. A 25 years-old male complained of many minute vesicles on the vermillion border of the upper lip. The vesicles were preceded by an "itching" sensation. The patient stated the vesicles develop "two or three times" a year. The MOST LIKELY diagnosis is?

σ� Herpes zoster

σ� Recurrent herpes simplex infection

σ� Primary herpetic stomatitis

σ� Recurrent aphthous ulceration

519. A patient presents with painless, bluish lump (10 mm in diameter) just inside the vermillion border of the lower lip. The MOST LIKELY diagnosis is?

520. The EARLIEST apical radiographic change seen in a pulpally involved tooth is?

σ� Resorption of bone

σ� Loss of lamina dura

σ� External root resorption

σ� Widening of the periodontal ligament space

521. The drug most commonly used to treat trigeminal neuralgia is ?

σ� Diazepam (Valium)

σ� Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

σ� Ergotamine

σ� Phenytoin (Dilantin)

522. An injection at the anterior border of the ramus of the mandible, a centimetre above the lower occlusal plane, will anaesthetise the ?

σ� Lingual nerve

σ� Long buccal nerve

σ� Facial nerve

σ� Posterior superior alveolar nerve

523. The MOST COMMON problem arising from premature extraction of deciduous molars is the loss of ?

σ� Arch length

σ� Facial contour

σ� Vertical height

σ� Sibilant speech sounds

524. The following chemically bond to the tooth:?

σ� Composite resin.

σ� Dental sealants.

σ� Glass ionomer cement.

σ� Amalgam.

525. Compomer restorative materials are:?

σ� Glass ionomer with polymer components

σ� Resin systems with fluoride containing glasses.

σ� Composite resin for cervical restorations only.

σ� Dental sealants.

526. Loose enamel rods at the gingival floor of a class II amalgam cavity should be removed using :?

σ� Straight chisel.

σ� Hatchet.

σ� Gingival curetla.

σ� Gingival marginal trimmer.

527. Removal of Undermined Enamel in Class II cavity is done by :?

σ� Chisel.

σ� Angle former

σ� Excavator

σ� Hatchet

528. Which of the following materials has been shown to simulate reparative dentine formation most effectively when applied to the pulpal wall of a very deep cavity:?

σ� Copalite varnish.

σ� Calcium hydroxide preparation.

σ� Zinc phosphate cement.

σ� Anhydrous class inomer cement.

529. What can we use under composite restoration:?

σ� Ca (OH).

σ� ZOE.

σ� ZINC phosphate cement.

σ� GIC

530. To prevent discoloration under amalgam filling:?

σ� Use Zn phosphate box.

σ� Use cavity varnish.

σ� Wash the cavity with NaOCL before filling.

σ� Use the correct amalgam-alloy ratio.

531. Class II composite resin is lined by:?

σ� G.I.C

σ� Reinforced ZOE.

σ� ZOE with epoxy cement.

σ� Cavity varnish.

532. Calcium hydroxide is used in deep cavity because it is:?

σ� Simulate formation of 2nd dentine.

σ� Not irritant to the pulp.

σ� For thermal isolation.

σ� Provence thermal

533. Patient feel pain of short duration after class II restoration. Diagnosis is:?

σ� Reversible pulpitis (Hyperemia).

σ� Irreversible pulpitis.

σ� Periodontitis.

σ� Abscess

534. Rampant caries in adult in anterior teeth restored by:?

σ� Glass ionomer.

σ� ZOE.

σ� Amalgam.

σ� Composite

535. Cavity varnish should be applied at least in:?

σ� One layer.

σ� Two layer.

σ� Three layer.

σ� Four layer.

536. The spontaneous production of an electric current resulting from two dissimilar metal in the oral cavity is called:?

σ� Nuclear reaction.

σ� Galvanic action.

σ� Precipitation reaction.

σ� Thermodynamics.

537. One week after filling of class II restoration, the post treatment present with a complain of tenderness on mastication and bleeding from the gingival. The dentist should initially:?

σ� Check the occlusion.

σ� Check the contract area.

σ� Consider the probability of hyperemia.

σ� Explain to the post treatment that the retainer irritated the surrounding soft tissue and prescribe an analgesic and warm oral rinse.

538. The function of the anterior teeth is:?

σ� Disarticulate the posterior teeth.

σ� Incise food.

σ� Prevent attrition.

σ� Prevent food impaction.

539. The following cavity bases are moisture sensitive:?

σ� Polycarboxylate

σ� Zinc phosphate

σ� GI cement.

σ� ZOE

540. Proximal caries should be opened when:?

σ� Confined within enamel.

σ� Pass DE junction.

σ� Dentin laterally.

σ� All of the above.

541. Proximal caries confined to enamel:?

σ� Prevention.

σ� Observation

σ� Restore with G I

σ� None

542. (30 year) old patient came to the clinic with brownish discoloration of all his teeth (intrinsic discoloration) & yellowish in U/V light the most likely cause is:?

σ� Fluorosis.

σ� Tetracycline.

σ� Amelogensis imperfect.

σ� Dentogensis imperfectea.

543. Patient with amalgam usually complain of pain with:?

σ� Cold.

σ� Galvanic.

σ� Hot.

σ� All are corrects

544. Pain of short duration with hot and cold:?

σ� Dentin sensitivity.

σ� Irreversible pulpitis.

σ� Chronic pulpitis.

σ� Apical periodontitis.

545. Restoring lost tooth, which is least important:?

σ� Esthetic.

σ� Patient demand

σ� Function.

σ� Arch integrity and occlusal stability.

546. When restoring asymptomatic healthy tooth with amalgam, the normal physiologic symptom after that is:?

σ� Pain on hot

σ� Pain on cold

σ� Pain on biting.

σ� Pain on sweet.

547. Which type of burs is the least in heat generation:?

σ� Diamond.

σ� Carbide.

σ� Titanium.

σ� All are corrects

548. Secondary dentine occur due to:?

σ� Occlusal trauma.

σ� Recurrent caries.

σ� Attrition dentine.

σ� All of the above.

549. At which of the following locations on a mandibular molar do you complete the excavation of caries first:?

σ� Axial walls.

σ� Pulpal floor over the mesial pulp horns.

σ� Peripheral caries.

σ� All of the above are correct.

550. Patient had bulimia and had lesion in palatal surface in upper teeth with recurrent vomiting. What is the type of lesion:?

σ� Attrition.

σ� Abrasion.

σ� Erosion.

Management (11)

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